What to Expect on the HESI A2
The HESI Admission Assessment (HESI A2) is a nursing school entrance exam published by Elsevier. Unlike the TEAS, which is standardized across all administrations, each nursing program selects which HESI A2 sections it requires — so the first step is confirming exactly which sections your program tests.
The most commonly required sections are:
- Anatomy & Physiology (25 questions, 25 minutes): Body systems, organ functions, cellular biology. This is the section most programs weight most heavily — and where most students lose points.
- Mathematics (50 questions, 50 minutes): Fractions, decimals, ratios, dosage calculations, basic algebra, and roman numerals. A basic calculator is provided.
- Reading Comprehension (47 questions, 60 minutes): Passage-based questions testing main idea, inference, vocabulary in context, and author's purpose.
- Vocabulary & General Knowledge (50 questions, 50 minutes): Medical and general vocabulary, often tested in sentence context.
- Grammar (50 questions, 50 minutes): Parts of speech, sentence structure, punctuation, and usage — less commonly required but included at many programs.
- Biology (25 questions, 25 minutes): Cell biology, genetics, metabolism, and basic biological processes.
Scores are reported as a percentage for each section. Most programs require a minimum of 75–80% per section, though competitive programs may expect 85–90%. Always verify the exact requirement with your admissions office.
Free HESI A2 Practice Questions by Section
The questions below reflect the style and difficulty of real HESI A2 items. Work through each section, check your answers, and note any topic areas where you lost points — those are your priority study areas.
Anatomy & Physiology (10 Questions)
-
Which chamber of the heart pumps oxygenated blood into systemic circulation?
- A) Right atrium
- B) Right ventricle
- C) Left atrium
- D) Left ventricle
-
The primary function of the large intestine is to:
- A) Digest proteins into amino acids
- B) Absorb nutrients from digested food
- C) Absorb water and form solid waste
- D) Produce digestive enzymes
-
Which bone is located in the upper arm?
- A) Radius
- B) Ulna
- C) Femur
- D) Humerus
-
The process by which cells engulf and destroy pathogens is called:
- A) Pinocytosis
- B) Phagocytosis
- C) Exocytosis
- D) Osmosis
-
Which gland produces insulin?
- A) Thyroid gland
- B) Adrenal gland
- C) Pancreas
- D) Pituitary gland
-
The functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering blood is the:
- A) Ureter
- B) Glomerulus alone
- C) Nephron
- D) Collecting duct
-
Which type of joint allows the greatest range of motion?
- A) Hinge joint
- B) Pivot joint
- C) Ball-and-socket joint
- D) Saddle joint
-
During an action potential, sodium ions rapidly entering the neuron causes:
- A) Hyperpolarization
- B) Repolarization
- C) Depolarization
- D) Resting potential
-
Which of the following correctly describes the role of hemoglobin?
- A) It destroys foreign antigens in the bloodstream
- B) It transports oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
- C) It initiates the clotting cascade when a vessel is injured
- D) It regulates blood glucose levels
-
The pleural membranes surround which organ?
- A) Heart
- B) Liver
- C) Kidneys
- D) Lungs
Mathematics (8 Questions)
-
Convert 2/5 to a decimal.
- A) 0.25
- B) 0.4
- C) 0.45
- D) 0.5
-
A patient is prescribed 1,200 mg of a medication daily, divided into 3 equal doses. How many milligrams per dose?
- A) 300 mg
- B) 350 mg
- C) 400 mg
- D) 450 mg
-
What is 18% of 350?
- A) 53
- B) 58
- C) 63
- D) 68
-
Simplify: 3/4 ÷ 1/2
- A) 3/8
- B) 1/2
- C) 3/2
- D) 2
-
A physician orders 0.25 mg of a drug. The available concentration is 0.5 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered?
- A) 0.25 mL
- B) 0.5 mL
- C) 1 mL
- D) 2 mL
-
If a patient weighs 88 kg and the dosage is 2 mg/kg, what is the total dose?
- A) 44 mg
- B) 132 mg
- C) 176 mg
- D) 220 mg
-
What is the ratio of 15 to 45 in simplest form?
- A) 1:2
- B) 1:3
- C) 2:5
- D) 3:9
-
Convert Roman numeral XIV to Arabic numerals.
- A) 11
- B) 14
- C) 16
- D) 40
Reading Comprehension (6 Questions)
Read the passage and answer the questions that follow.
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition that arises when the body's response to an infection causes widespread inflammation, leading to tissue damage, organ failure, and potentially death. It is frequently misdiagnosed in its early stages because its symptoms — fever, rapid heart rate, and confusion — can resemble those of many less serious conditions. Early recognition is critical: for every hour treatment is delayed, mortality risk increases by approximately 7%.
The "Sepsis Six" bundle, developed by the Surviving Sepsis Campaign, provides a standardized clinical protocol for frontline healthcare workers. Within the first hour of suspected sepsis, providers should administer high-flow oxygen, obtain blood cultures, measure serum lactate, give IV antibiotics, begin IV fluid resuscitation, and monitor urine output. Adherence to this bundle has been shown in multiple studies to significantly reduce sepsis-related mortality.
-
According to the passage, what is one reason sepsis is frequently misdiagnosed?
- A) It only affects elderly patients
- B) Its symptoms overlap with less serious conditions
- C) It does not cause a fever in most cases
- D) Laboratory tests cannot detect it in early stages
-
The main purpose of the "Sepsis Six" bundle is to:
- A) Diagnose sepsis using blood cultures alone
- B) Provide a standardized treatment protocol to reduce mortality
- C) Train nurses to recognize sepsis symptoms
- D) Replace antibiotic therapy with fluid resuscitation
-
Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred?
- A) Most sepsis deaths occur in patients who receive the Sepsis Six bundle
- B) Rapid treatment initiation is a key factor in patient survival
- C) Sepsis is more common than pneumonia or influenza
- D) IV antibiotics are ineffective when given within the first hour
-
As used in the passage, "resuscitation" most nearly means:
- A) Surgical repair of damaged tissue
- B) Restoration of normal physiological function
- C) Removal of infectious agents from the bloodstream
- D) Administration of oxygen therapy
-
Which of the following is NOT listed as part of the Sepsis Six bundle?
- A) Administer high-flow oxygen
- B) Perform a chest X-ray
- C) Measure serum lactate
- D) Monitor urine output
-
Which title best summarizes this passage?
- A) The History of the Surviving Sepsis Campaign
- B) Why Sepsis Is Impossible to Diagnose
- C) Recognizing and Treating Sepsis Quickly Saves Lives
- D) Antibiotic Resistance and Its Role in Sepsis Mortality
Vocabulary & General Knowledge (6 Questions)
-
Which word means "relating to the skin"?
- A) Hepatic
- B) Cutaneous
- C) Renal
- D) Pulmonary
-
The prefix "brady-" means:
- A) Fast
- B) Painful
- C) Slow
- D) Excessive
-
Which term refers to difficulty swallowing?
- A) Dyspnea
- B) Dysuria
- C) Dysphagia
- D) Dysphasia
-
Select the word that best fits the sentence: "The patient's condition was ______, improving slightly one day and worsening the next."
- A) Stable
- B) Chronic
- C) Fluctuating
- D) Acute
-
The suffix "-ectomy" means:
- A) Inflammation of
- B) Surgical removal of
- C) Disease of
- D) Incision into
-
Which word means "producing or secreting pus"?
- A) Necrotic
- B) Purulent
- C) Sanguineous
- D) Edematous
Answer Key
Anatomy & Physiology: 1-D, 2-C, 3-D, 4-B, 5-C, 6-C, 7-C, 8-C, 9-B, 10-D
Mathematics: 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-B, 6-C, 7-B, 8-B
Reading Comprehension: 1-B, 2-B, 3-B, 4-B, 5-B, 6-C
Vocabulary: 1-B, 2-C, 3-C, 4-C, 5-B, 6-B
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How to Interpret Your Score
This is a 30-question diagnostic sample. Use it to identify weak sections before your real exam:
- 27–30 correct: Strong baseline. Focus remaining prep on full-length timed practice and any specific A&P body systems where you lost points.
- 22–26 correct: Good foundation. Pinpoint the sections that cost you the most points and double down there — A&P and Math are highest-yield.
- 17–21 correct: Targeted preparation needed. A&P is almost always the gap — prioritize body systems, organ functions, and cellular processes.
- Below 17: Plan for 6–8 weeks of structured study. Take a full diagnostic to build a section-by-section study plan before diving into content review.
What the HESI A2 Tests That This Sample Doesn't Fully Cover
This 30-question set covers the four most commonly required sections. Your specific program may also require Biology, Chemistry, Grammar, or a Learning Style assessment. The full HESI A2 includes:
- Up to eight academic sections depending on program requirements
- A&P questions that go deeper into body system interactions, not just isolated facts
- Math problems including roman numeral conversions and military time calculations
- Vocabulary drawn heavily from medical terminology prefixes, suffixes, and root words
A full HESI A2 diagnostic — available free with a StudyBuddy account — identifies exactly which sections your program requires, where your scores fall relative to program minimums, and which topics within each section to prioritize.
HESI A2 vs. TEAS 7: Which Is Harder?
Students often ask this question when they're unsure which exam their program uses. The honest answer: neither is objectively harder — they test similar content with different formats and emphasis.
The HESI A2 Anatomy & Physiology section is more clinically focused and more vocabulary-heavy than the TEAS Science section. The HESI Math section includes roman numerals and military time that don't appear on the TEAS. The TEAS Science section is broader, covering Chemistry and Earth Science alongside A&P.
Your program uses one or the other — not both. Confirm which exam your program requires before you invest preparation time. If your program uses the HESI A2, focus on A&P body systems and medical terminology first — these two areas determine most students' scores.